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The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 (PCMA) | MCQs Set-1
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1. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act was enacted in which year of the Republic of India?
a. Fifty-fifth
b. Fifty-sixth
c. Fifty-seventh
d. Fifty-eighth
2. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 corresponds to which Act number?
a. Act No. 5 of 2006
b. Act No. 6 of 2006
c. Act No. 5 of 2007
d. Act No. 6 of 2007
3. On which date did the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 receive Presidential assent?
a. 9th January, 2007
b. 10th January, 2007
c. 11th January, 2007
d. 1st January, 2007
4. The primary object of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 is to:
a. Regulate child marriages under special circumstances
b. Penalise parents and guardians for child marriages
c. Prohibit the solemnisation of child marriages
d. Declare child marriages void ab initio
5. The phrase “and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto” in the long title indicates that the Act:
a. Applies only to solemnisation ceremonies
b. Is limited strictly to prohibition provisions
c. Covers ancillary and consequential matters related to child marriage
d. Applies only where punishment is prescribed
6. Which legislative body enacted the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006?
a. State Legislatures
b. Parliament
c. Constituent Assembly
d. Law Commission of India
7. The enacting clause of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 begins with which expression?
a. “It is hereby declared”
b. “Be it enacted by Parliament”
c. “Whereas it is expedient”
d. “In exercise of the powers conferred”
8. Which of the following best describes the nature of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 based on its long title?
a. Curative legislation
b. Regulatory legislation
c. Prohibitory legislation
d. Declaratory legislation
9. The words “connected therewith or incidental thereto” are significant because they:
a. Restrict the scope of the Act
b. Expand the operational scope of the Act
c. Make the Act prospective only
d. Limit judicial interpretation
10. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 was enacted to replace primarily which earlier legislation?
a. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
b. Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929
c. Juvenile Justice Act, 2000
d. Special Marriage Act, 1954
11. Section 1 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 primarily deals with which of the following?
a. Definitions under the Act
b. Punishments and offences
c. Short title, territorial extent and commencement
d. Jurisdiction of courts
12. According to Section 1(1), the correct short title of the Act is:
a. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 2006
b. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2005
c. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
d. The Child Marriage (Prevention) Act, 2006
13. The territorial extent of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 under Section 1(2) is:
a. Only to the States of India
b. To the whole of India excluding Union Territories
c. To the whole of India
d. To such States as notified by the Central Government
14. Apart from extending to the whole of India, the Act also applies to:
a. All residents of India
b. All persons domiciled in India
c. All citizens of India within India only
d. All citizens of India without and beyond India
15. The application of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 to Indian citizens outside India indicates that the Act has:
a. Retrospective operation
b. Strict liability
c. Extra-territorial operation
d. Temporary application
16. Which category of persons is expressly excluded from the application of this Act by virtue of the proviso to Section 1(2)?
a. Members of Scheduled Tribes
b. Foreign nationals residing in India
c. Renoncants of the Union Territory of Pondicherry
d. Persons governed by customary law
17. The term “Renoncants” referred to in Section 1(2) proviso is associated with which Union Territory?
a. Chandigarh
b. Daman and Diu
c. Puducherry (Pondicherry)
d. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
18. The exclusion of Renoncants under the Act is based on:
a. Religious identity
b. Citizenship status
c. Personal law renunciation
d. Age-based classification
19. Section 1(3) provides that the Act shall come into force:
a. On the date of Presidential assent
b. On the date of its publication in the Gazette automatically
c. On such date as appointed by the Central Government by notification
d. On 10th January, 2007 uniformly across India
20. The authority empowered to appoint the date of commencement of the Act is:
a. State Government
b. Parliament
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Central Government
21. The notification bringing the Act into force must be published in:
a. State Gazette
b. Official Gazette
c. Law Commission Report
d. Parliamentary Bulletin
22. Section 1(3) permits the Central Government to:
a. Appoint only one uniform date for the entire country
b. Appoint different dates for different States
c. Delegate commencement power to States
d. Apply the Act retrospectively in some States
23. Where different dates are appointed for different States, a reference to the commencement of the Act shall be construed as:
a. The date of Presidential assent
b. The date of Central notification
c. The date of enforcement in that particular State
d. The earliest notified date
24. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The Act automatically came into force on 10 January 2007
b. The Act applies to Renoncants of Pondicherry
c. The Act applies to Indian citizens residing abroad
d. The Act extends only to notified States
25. The phrase “without and beyond India” used in Section 1(2) is most closely related to which constitutional concept?
a. Federal supremacy
b. Personal law application
c. Extra-territorial legislative competence
d. Delegated legislation
26. The definition clause of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 begins with which qualifying phrase?
a. “Notwithstanding anything contained elsewhere”
b. “Subject to the provisions of this Act”
c. “Unless the context otherwise requires”
d. “Save as otherwise expressly provided”
27. Under Section 2(a), a male is considered a “child” if he has not completed the age of:
a. Eighteen years
b. Twenty years
c. Twenty-one years
d. Twenty-five years
28. Under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, a female is considered a “child” if she has not completed:
a. Sixteen years
b. Seventeen years
c. Eighteen years
d. Twenty-one years
29. The definition of “child” under Section 2(a) is based on:
a. Uniform age for both genders
b. Gender-neutral majority principles
c. Different age thresholds for males and females
d. Personal law applicable to the parties
30. A “child marriage” under Section 2(b) means a marriage where:
a. Both contracting parties are children
b. The bride is a child
c. The bridegroom is a child
d. Either of the contracting parties is a child
31. Which of the following situations would constitute a “child marriage” under the Act?
a. Marriage where both parties are above 18 years
b. Marriage where the male is 22 and female is 17
c. Marriage where both parties are 20 years old
d. Marriage solemnised after attaining majority
32. The term “contracting party”, in relation to a marriage, refers to:
a. The parents of the parties
b. The guardians of the parties
c. Either of the parties whose marriage is or is about to be solemnized
d. Only the bride and bridegroom after marriage
33. The expression “is or is about to be solemnised” in the definition of “contracting party” indicates that the Act applies:
a. Only after a marriage is completed
b. Only to void marriages
c. To both existing and imminent marriages
d. Only to registered marriages
34. Which of the following best describes the nature of the definition of “Child Marriage Prohibition Officer” under Section 2(d)?
a. Exhaustive definition
b. Restrictive definition
c. Inclusive definition
d. Penal definition
35. The term “Child Marriage Prohibition Officer” includes an officer appointed under:
a. Section 14
b. Section 15
c. Section 16(1)
d. Section 17
36. The definition of “district court” under Section 2(e) is structured on the basis of:
a. Uniform civil court hierarchy
b. Availability of Family Courts and city civil courts
c. Criminal court jurisdiction
d. Population of the district
37. In an area where a Family Court has been established under the Family Courts Act, 1984, the “district court” for the purposes of this Act shall mean:
a. The Sessions Court
b. The High Court
c. Such Family Court
d. The Chief Judicial Magistrate’s Court
38. Where no Family Court exists but a city civil court exists, the “district court” under this Act shall be:
a. The principal civil court of original jurisdiction
b. The High Court exercising original jurisdiction
c. The city civil court
d. The Sessions Court
39. In areas where neither a Family Court nor a city civil court exists, the “district court” means:
a. The Sessions Court
b. The principal civil court of original jurisdiction
c. The Subordinate Civil Court
d. The Magistrate’s Court
40. Apart from courts expressly mentioned, which authority may specify any other civil court as having jurisdiction under this Act?
a. Central Government
b. High Court
c. State Government
d. Supreme Court of India
41. The specification of an additional civil court as “district court” under Section 2(e) must be done through:
a. Circular
b. Executive order
c. Judicial pronouncement
d. Notification in the Official Gazette
42. The definition of “minor” under Section 2(f) is linked to which statute?
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Juvenile Justice Act, 2015
c. Majority Act, 1875
d. Guardians and Wards Act, 1890
43. Under the Majority Act, 1875, a “minor” is a person who has:
a. Not completed eighteen years of age in all cases
b. Not attained majority as per personal law
c. Not attained majority as deemed under the Act
d. Been declared minor by a court
44. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. “Child” and “minor” are synonymous under the Act
b. Every minor is necessarily a child under the Act
c. Definitions under the Act override the Majority Act
d. “Minor” is defined by reference to another statute
45. The phrase “unless the context otherwise requires” in Section 2 implies that:
a. Definitions are rigid and inflexible
b. Definitions may yield to contextual interpretation
c. Definitions apply only to penal provisions
d. Definitions apply retrospectively
46. Section 3 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 declares a child marriage to be:
a. Void ab initio
b. Illegal but valid
c. Voidable at the option of the contracting party who was a child
d. Void only upon court declaration
47. A child marriage under Section 3 is voidable at the option of:
a. Either party to the marriage
b. Parents of the child
c. The contracting party who was a child at the time of marriage
d. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
48. A petition for annulling a child marriage by a decree of nullity may be filed by:
a. Either spouse
b. Parents or guardians
c. Any aggrieved person
d. Only the contracting party who was a child at the time of marriage
49. The petition for annulment of a child marriage under Section 3 shall be filed before:
a. Family Court
b. Juvenile Justice Board
c. District Court
d. High Court
50. If the petitioner is a minor at the time of filing the petition, it may be filed through:
a. Guardian alone
b. Guardian or next friend along with the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
c. Parent alone
d. Advocate appointed by court
51. A petition under Section 3 must be filed:
a. Within one year of marriage
b. At any time after marriage
c. Before completion of two years after attaining majority
d. Before attaining majority
52. The limitation period under Section 3 is calculated from:
a. Date of marriage
b. Date of discovery of marriage
c. Date of commencement of the Act
d. Date of attaining majority
53. While granting a decree of nullity, the District Court shall direct:
a. Only the husband to return gifts
b. Only parents to return money
c. Both parties and their parents or guardians to return marriage gifts or equivalent value
d. The State to compensate the victim
54. The order for return of money, valuables, or gifts under Section 3(4) can be passed only after:
a. Summary inquiry
b. Recording of evidence
c. Issuing notice and giving opportunity to show cause
d. Recommendation of Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
55. Which of the following best describes the nature of Section 3?
a. Penal provision
b. Declaratory provision
c. Beneficial and remedial provision
d. Procedural provision
56. Section 4 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 primarily provides for:
a. Punishment for child marriage
b. Annulment of child marriage
c. Maintenance and residence for female contracting party
d. Custody of children born from child marriage
57. The power of the district court under Section 4 can be exercised:
a. Independently of Section 3
b. Only while granting a decree under Section 3
c. Only after completion of trial
d. Only upon application by parents
58. Under Section 4(1), the district court may pass which type of maintenance order?
a. Only interim order
b. Only final order
c. Either interim or final order
d. Only permanent order
59. The primary liability to pay maintenance under Section 4(1) is on:
a. Parents of the female contracting party
b. Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
c. Male contracting party to the child marriage
d. State Government
60. If the male contracting party to the child marriage is a minor, the liability to pay maintenance shifts to:
a. The State
b. The district court
c. His employer
d. His parent or guardian
61. Maintenance under Section 4 is payable to the female contracting party:
a. For life
b. Till she attains majority
c. Till dissolution of marriage
d. Till her remarriage
62. Which of the following statements correctly reflects Section 4(1)?
a. Maintenance is mandatory in every case
b. Maintenance is discretionary and linked to Section 3 decree
c. Maintenance is payable only if marriage is void
d. Maintenance is payable to both contracting parties
63. The determination of the quantum of maintenance under Section 4(2) is based on:
a. Fixed statutory amount
b. Discretion of the Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
c. Factors prescribed by the district court
d. Consideration of specific statutory factors
64. Which of the following is NOT a factor expressly mentioned under Section 4(2) for determining maintenance?
a. Needs of the child
b. Lifestyle enjoyed during marriage
c. Means of income of the paying party
d. Conduct of the female contracting party
65. The expression “needs of the child” in Section 4(2) refers to:
a. Only food expenses
b. Only medical expenses
c. Comprehensive needs of the female contracting party
d. Needs of children born from marriage
66. The reference to “lifestyle enjoyed by such child during her marriage” indicates that maintenance:
a. Must be minimal
b. Is punitive in nature
c. Must ensure continuity of standard of living
d. Is unrelated to prior circumstances
67. The means of income considered under Section 4(2) relate to:
a. Only the income of the female contracting party
b. Only the income of the male contracting party
c. Only government income slabs
d. The income of the paying party
68. Under Section 4(3), the district court may direct maintenance to be paid:
a. Only monthly
b. Only annually
c. Only in lump sum
d. Either monthly or in lump sum
69. The choice between monthly payment and lump sum payment under Section 4(3) lies with:
a. The paying party
b. The female contracting party
c. The district court
d. The Child Marriage Prohibition Officer
70. Section 4(4) empowers the district court to pass an order regarding residence only when:
a. The marriage is declared void
b. The female contracting party files the petition under Section 3
c. The male contracting party is a minor
d. Both parties seek residence order
71. The residence order under Section 4(4) may subsist:
a. Permanently
b. Till the female attains majority
c. Till the final decree
d. Till her remarriage
72. Which of the following correctly reflects the gender-specific nature of Section 4?
a. Maintenance is payable to either party
b. Residence can be claimed by either party
c. Relief is specifically for the female contracting party
d. Relief applies equally to both minors
73. The nature of power exercised by the district court under Section 4 is:
a. Mandatory and mechanical
b. Discretionary and welfare-oriented
c. Penal and deterrent
d. Appellate
74. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Maintenance under Section 4 is independent of Section 3
b. Maintenance can continue even after remarriage
c. Parents of the male minor may be made liable
d. Residence order is automatic
75. Section 4 reflects which underlying legislative objective?
a. Criminal punishment
b. Contractual enforcement
c. Social welfare and protection of minor females
d. Uniform civil code implementation
76. Section 5 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 primarily deals with:
a. Legitimacy of children
b. Punishment for child marriage
c. Custody and maintenance of children of child marriages
d. Annulment of child marriages
77. The power to pass orders under Section 5 vests in which authority?
a. Family Court only
b. Juvenile Justice Board
c. District Court
d. Magistrate of First Class
78. Under Section 5(1), the district court is required to make an order for custody:
a. Only upon application by either party
b. Only if marriage is declared void
c. Where there are children born of the child marriage
d. Only if the children are minors
79. The nature of the custody order under Section 5(1) is best described as:
a. Optional and discretionary
b. Mandatory upon existence of children
c. Conditional upon consent of parents
d. Temporary in nature
80. While deciding custody under Section 5(2), the district court shall treat which factor as paramount?
a. Wishes of parents
b. Financial capacity of parents
c. Welfare and best interests of the child
d. Customary law
81. The expression “paramount consideration” under Section 5(2) implies that:
a. It is one of many equal considerations
b. It overrides all other considerations
c. It applies only to maintenance
d. It applies only when parties disagree
82. Which of the following is NOT expressly provided under Section 5(3)?
a. Directions for access to the child
b. Manner of access to serve child’s interest
c. Orders in the interest of the child
d. Termination of parental rights
83. Section 5(3) permits the district court to grant access to the child to:
a. Only the mother
b. Only the father
c. The other party to the marriage
d. Any relative of the child
84. The guiding principle for determining access rights under Section 5(3) is:
a. Equality between parents
b. Convenience of the parents
c. Best interests of the child
d. Statutory age limits
85. Apart from custody and access, Section 5(3) empowers the district court to:
a. Pass punitive orders
b. Pass such other orders as it deems proper in the interest of the child
c. Refer the matter to mediation compulsorily
d. Appoint a guardian ad litem
86. Section 5(4) authorises the district court to make orders for:
a. Maintenance to the female contracting party
b. Maintenance to the male contracting party
c. Maintenance to the child
d. Maintenance to grandparents
87. Under Section 5(4), maintenance to the child may be directed to be paid by:
a. Only the father
b. Only the mother
c. Only the contracting parties
d. A party to the marriage or their parents or guardians
88. The extension of maintenance liability to parents or guardians under Section 5(4) reflects:
a. Penal liability
b. Contractual obligation
c. Welfare-oriented statutory responsibility
d. Vicarious criminal liability
89. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Custody under Section 5 depends on who files the petition
b. Welfare of parents is the primary consideration
c. Access rights are automatic
d. Maintenance to the child can be ordered even against parents/guardians
90. Section 5 applies:
a. Only when marriage is declared void
b. Only when marriage is annulled
c. Wherever children are born of a child marriage
d. Only when both parents are minors
91. Which principle underlies Sections 4 and 5 together?
a. Penal deterrence
b. Contractual enforcement
c. Social welfare and child protection
d. Personal law supremacy
92. The discretion exercised by the district court under Section 5 is:
a. Absolute and unguided
b. Limited to statutory rules
c. Guided by welfare and best interests of the child
d. Subject to parental consent
93. Which of the following distinctions is correct?
a. Section 4 deals with children; Section 5 deals with spouses
b. Section 5 deals with custody and maintenance of children; Section 4 deals with female contracting party
c. Section 4 and 5 both deal with custody
d. Section 5 applies only after remarriage
94. Section 6 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 deals with:
a. Custody of children
b. Maintenance of children
c. Legitimacy of children
d. Guardianship of children
95. The operation of Section 6 begins with which overriding expression?
a. “Subject to the provisions of this Act”
b. “Unless the context otherwise requires”
c. “Save as otherwise provided”
d. “Notwithstanding that a child marriage has been annulled”
96. The effect of the phrase “Notwithstanding that a child marriage has been annulled” is that:
a. Annulment affects legitimacy
b. Legitimacy depends on validity of marriage
c. Annulment does not affect legitimacy of children
d. Annulment applies only prospectively
97. Section 6 applies only when a child marriage has been annulled under:
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 3
d. Section 7
98. For the purposes of Section 6, which children are covered?
a. Only children born after annulment
b. Only children born before commencement of the Act
c. Children begotten or conceived before the decree of nullity
d. Only children born during minority
99. The words “begotten or conceived” indicate that Section 6 covers:
a. Only children already born
b. Only children conceived after annulment
c. Both unborn and born children
d. Only legitimate children under personal law
100. The legitimacy conferred under Section 6 applies to children:
a. Born only before the commencement of the Act
b. Born only after the commencement of the Act
c. Born either before or after the commencement of the Act
d. Born only after annulment
101. The retrospective operation of Section 6 is evident from which phrase?
a. “For all purposes”
b. “Begotten or conceived”
c. “Whether born before or after the commencement of this Act”
d. “Shall be deemed”
102. Under Section 6, a child covered by the provision shall be deemed to be:
a. Illegitimate but protected
b. Legitimate for limited purposes
c. Legitimate only for maintenance
d. Legitimate for all purposes
103. The expression “for all purposes” under Section 6 implies that legitimacy extends to:
a. Only social status
b. Only maintenance and custody
c. Only succession
d. All legal rights and consequences
104. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Annulment renders children illegitimate
b. Legitimacy depends on subsistence of marriage
c. Children born of annulled child marriages are deemed legitimate
d. Section 6 applies only prospectively
105. The legal technique used in Section 6 to confer legitimacy is:
a. Legal fiction
b. Penal sanction
c. Rebuttable presumption
d. Discretionary declaration
106. The phrase “shall be deemed to be a legitimate child” signifies that:
a. Court must inquire into facts
b. Legitimacy is conditional
c. Law creates a conclusive status
d. Legitimacy is optional
107. Which principle underlies Section 6?
a. Deterrence
b. Contractual sanctity
c. Welfare of children and protection from stigma
d. Uniform civil code
108. Section 6 ensures that children of child marriages are not prejudiced due to:
a. Criminal liability of parents
b. Annulment of marriage
c. Minority of contracting parties
d. Delay in filing petition
109. Which of the following distinctions is accurate?
a. Section 5 deals with legitimacy; Section 6 with custody
b. Section 6 deals with legitimacy; Section 5 deals with custody and maintenance
c. Both Sections deal only with maintenance
d. Section 6 applies only if custody is decided
110. Section 7 of the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 empowers the district court to exercise which of the following powers?
a. Only to modify orders
b. Only to revoke orders
c. To add to, modify or revoke orders
d. Only to review orders
111. The power under Section 7 can be exercised in respect of orders passed under:
a. Section 3 only
b. Section 4 only
c. Section 5 only
d. Sections 4 and 5
112. The district court may exercise its power under Section 7 when:
a. The petition is pending only
b. The petition is finally disposed of only
c. There is a change in circumstances at any time
d. Only upon application by both parties
113. Which of the following best describes the temporal scope of Section 7?
a. Only before final disposal of the petition
b. Only after final disposal of the petition
c. During pendency and after final disposal of the petition
d. Only within limitation period of appeal
114. The condition precedent for exercise of power under Section 7 is:
a. Discovery of fraud
b. Consent of parties
c. Change in circumstances
d. Appeal against the order
115. The phrase “shall have the power” in Section 7 indicates that the power of the district court is:
a. Discretionary and optional
b. Mandatory upon request
c. Inherent and enabling
d. Appellate in nature
116. Which of the following orders CANNOT be modified under Section 7?
a. Maintenance order under Section 4
b. Residence order under Section 4
c. Custody order under Section 5
d. Decree of nullity under Section 3
117. Section 7 primarily reflects which principle of family law adjudication?
a. Finality of judgments
b. Res judicata
c. Continuing jurisdiction based on changed circumstances
d. Doctrine of estoppel
118. The power to “add to” an order under Section 7 implies:
a. Passing a fresh decree
b. Enhancing or supplementing existing directions
c. Reviewing legality of original order
d. Setting aside the original proceedings
119. Which court is competent to exercise powers under Section 7?
a. Judicial Magistrate First Class
b. Family Court only
c. District Court as defined under the Act
d. High Court
120. Section 7 allows modification of orders even after final disposal because:
a. The Act overrides CPC
b. Maintenance and custody are continuing obligations
c. Appeal provision is absent
d. Limitation does not apply
121. If circumstances change after an order under Section 4, which provision enables alteration?
a. Section 3
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
d. Section 16
122. Section 7 is an exception to which general procedural principle?
a. Audi alteram partem
b. Finality of judicial orders
c. Burden of proof
d. Territorial jurisdiction
123. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Section 7 applies only if the original order was interim
b. Section 7 applies only if the petition is pending
c. Section 7 applies irrespective of pendency or final disposal
d. Section 7 requires filing of a fresh petition
124. The nature of jurisdiction exercised under Section 7 can best be described as:
a. Appellate
b. Revisional
c. Continuing supervisory
d. Original criminal
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